Overview
Judicial review in India is the power of the Supreme Court and the High Courts to examine the constitutionality of laws made by Parliament and the State legislatures, and of executive orders of the Centre and the States. A law or order found to violate the Constitution (ultra vires) is declared illegal, unconstitutional and void, and the government can no longer enforce it. Since 1973 the same power extends to constitutional amendments, which the courts test against the Doctrine of Basic Structure.
Judicial Review in India: Meaning and Constitutional Basis
Purpose and Grounds of Judicial Review
The phrase "judicial review" does not appear anywhere in the Constitution. The power rests on a written Constitution, on the Fundamental Rights that bind the legislature, and on a group of articles that give the courts their jurisdiction.
The Supreme Court acts as the final interpreter of the Constitution, so its reading of an article binds every other court.
Three reasons make the power necessary:
- Supremacy of the Constitution: No organ of government may act beyond the limits that the Constitution sets.
- Federal equilibrium: A State can challenge a Union law that, in its view, belongs to the State List, and the Union can challenge a State law that strays beyond its field.
- Protection of Fundamental Rights: A law that takes away a right in Part III can be struck down.
A challenge to a law or order can rest on three grounds. The law may infringe the Fundamental Rights in Part III, it may be outside the competence of the authority that made it, or it may be repugnant to a provision of the Constitution. The review power covers laws of State legislatures as well as laws of Parliament.
Constitutional Provisions Behind Judicial Review
Several articles confer the power explicitly, and others supply the rules that the courts apply when they review.
| Article | What it provides | Role in review |
|---|---|---|
| Article 13 | Laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights are void to the extent of the inconsistency; "law" includes an Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage | The textual source of the power to strike down laws that violate Part III |
| Article 32 | The right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights is guaranteed; the Court may issue directions, orders or writs | A Fundamental Right in itself, not suspended except as the Constitution provides |
| Article 226 | Every High Court may issue directions, orders or writs for the enforcement of Part III rights "and for any other purpose" | Wider than Article 32 in the purposes for which a writ may issue |
| Article 131 | Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in disputes between the Government of India and States, or between States | Settles federal disputes |
| Articles 132 to 134 | Appeals from High Courts to the Supreme Court, including cases that involve a substantial question of law on the interpretation of the Constitution | Brings constitutional questions to the Supreme Court |
| Article 136 | Special leave to appeal from any court or tribunal, at the Court's discretion | Lets the Court reach almost any decision |
| Articles 137 and 141 | The Court may review its own judgments; the law it declares binds all courts in India | Makes its reading of the Constitution authoritative |
| Article 142 | Orders necessary for doing complete justice in a matter before the Court | Basis of many far-reaching directions |
| Article 143 | The President may refer a question of law or fact of public importance to the Court for its opinion | Advisory jurisdiction |
| Articles 246, 251, 254 | Division of legislative power; in a conflict, the Union law generally prevails and the State law is void or inoperative to the extent of the repugnancy, subject to the exception in Article 254(2) | The courts decide whether a law is within the legislature's field and which law prevails |
| Article 372 | Laws in force before the Constitution continue, but subject to the other provisions of the Constitution | Old laws too are open to test against Part III through Article 13(1) |
Article 13 deserves a closer look. Clause (1) makes pre-Constitution laws void to the extent they conflict with Part III, and clause (2) forbids the State from making any law that takes away or abridges the rights in that Part. Clause (3) defines "law" widely, so that an ordinance, an order, a rule, a notification, and even a custom or usage having the force of law can be tested. Clause (4) states that Article 13 does not apply to an amendment made under Article 368.
Under Article 137 the Supreme Court can review its own judgments, and a larger bench can depart from an earlier decision, as the 13-judge bench in Kesavananda Bharati did with Golak Nath.
Article 32 was debated and adopted in the Constituent Assembly on 9 December 1948. Dr B.R. Ambedkar called it "the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it", adding that without it the Constitution would be a nullity. Because it is placed in Part III, it can be suspended only as the Constitution itself provides.
The Supreme Court and the High Courts also use their writ powers differently. A High Court can use them "for any other purpose" as well as for rights, so its writ jurisdiction under Article 226 reaches beyond the Fundamental Rights that Article 32 protects.
Judicial Review in India, the USA and the UK Compared
Neither Constitution names the power, yet India's judicial review is narrower than the American model. The difference lies in the standard the court applies. The American Constitution speaks of "due process of law", which lets the US Supreme Court declare a law void not only because it is outside power but also because it is unreasonable. Critics have called that court a "third chamber" of the legislature.
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution instead speaks of "procedure established by law". Under that wording, as first read, the Indian Supreme Court asked only whether the authority had the power to make the law, not whether the law was reasonable, suitable or wise as policy.
In the United States, the power was inferred from the structure of the Constitution and confirmed in Marbury v. Madison in 1803, the first case in which the Court struck down a law as unconstitutional. In the United Kingdom the position is different, because Parliament is sovereign. The legislative body is supreme over the executive and the judiciary and can change or repeal any earlier legislation.
| Point | India | USA | UK |
|---|---|---|---|
| Source of the power | Several articles of a written Constitution, mainly 13, 32 and 226 | Inferred from the Constitution; asserted in Marbury v. Madison (1803) | None comparable, because Parliament is sovereign and supreme over the judiciary |
| Standard of review | Procedure established by law, read since 1978 to require a just, fair and reasonable procedure | Due process of law, which tests reasonableness itself | Parliamentary sovereignty |
| Resulting principle | A synthesis of judicial supremacy and parliamentary supremacy | Judicial supremacy | Parliamentary supremacy |
The gap between India and the USA narrowed after Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978). A seven-judge bench overruled the narrow reading of Article 21 in A.K. Gopalan (1950) and held that the procedure must be just, fair and reasonable, and that Articles 14, 19 and 21 work together as the "golden triangle". The Court thereby brought in the substance of American due process, though not its words. India therefore recognises judicial supremacy to a limited extent and does not fully follow the British principle of parliamentary supremacy, because the written Constitution, federalism, Fundamental Rights and judicial review all limit Parliament. What exists is a synthesis of both.
Scope of Judicial Review: Amendments, Laws and Executive Action
Ordinances, Presumption of Constitutionality and Concrete Cases
The Court reviews three kinds of enactment. Ordinary laws of Parliament and the State legislatures are tested for a breach of Fundamental Rights, for legislative competence and for repugnancy to the Constitution. Ordinances are reviewed too, since Article 13(3)(a) counts an Ordinance as "law" and since a President's satisfaction in promulgating one can be questioned on the ground of mala fides, as the Court held in the Cooper case (1970). The 38th Amendment of 1975 made that satisfaction final and beyond review, but the 44th Amendment of 1978 deleted the provision. Constitutional amendments are the third kind, and they are reviewed on one question, namely whether the amendment damages a basic feature of the Constitution.
The Court begins from a presumption in favour of the constitutionality of a statute. In Charanjit Lal v. Union of India (1950), Justice Fazl Ali held that "the presumption is always in favour of the constitutionality of an enactment, and the burden is upon him who attacks it to show that there has been a clear transgression of the constitutional principles". Chief Justice S.H. Kapadia, in a lecture on 16 April 2011, urged the judiciary to maintain self-restraint, respect the separation of powers and not overtake the legislative function.
India also follows the American method of review, in which a court examines a law only in a concrete case or controversy and only when the law is in effect. It differs from the French model, in which review takes place before a law comes into force.
President's Rule, Emergency, Pardons and Assent to Bills
Executive action is also open to review, including powers of the President and Governors once thought to lie beyond the courts.
- President's Rule: The 38th Amendment of 1975 made the President's satisfaction under Article 356 final and conclusive, and the 44th Amendment of 1978 deleted that provision. In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) the Court held that a proclamation is subject to judicial review. The satisfaction must rest on relevant material, the burden is on the Centre to prove that such material exists, and a proclamation based on irrelevant or extraneous grounds, or found to be mala fide or perverse, can be struck down. The Court does not go into the correctness or adequacy of the material.
- National Emergency: The 38th Amendment made the declaration immune from review, and the 44th Amendment removed that. In Minerva Mills (1980) the Court held that a proclamation can be challenged on the ground of mala fides, or because it rests on wholly extraneous and irrelevant facts or is absurd or perverse.
- Pardons: The President exercises the pardoning power on the advice of the Union Cabinet. The exercise is not subject to judicial review except where the decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala fide or discriminatory.
- Assent to Bills: In Special Reference No. 1 of 2025, decided on 20 November 2025, the Court advised that the decisions of the Governor and the President under Articles 200 and 201 are not justiciable at a stage before the Bill becomes law, that the President and Governors cannot be bound by judicially prescribed timelines, and that courts cannot read a "deemed assent" into the Constitution through Article 142.
Article 74(2) bars a court from inquiring into the advice that ministers gave the President, but the Bommai bench held that it does not bar scrutiny of the material on which the satisfaction rests.
Ouster Clauses: Kihoto Hollohan and L. Chandra Kumar
Parliament has sometimes tried to exclude the courts from a field by writing an ouster clause into a law. The Court has answered such attempts on principle. In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992) a five-judge bench upheld the power of the Speaker to decide questions of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule but struck down the provision that excluded the Speaker's decision from judicial review. The Speaker's power, the Court noted, is a judicial power that must follow the rule of law, so review remained available on claims of bias and other principles of natural justice.
In L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997) a seven-judge bench dealt with the exclusion of High Court jurisdiction in service matters. It declared that the review power of the Supreme Court and the High Courts under Articles 32 and 226 is an integral and essential feature of the basic structure. A law that excludes High Court jurisdiction without setting up an alternative arrangement for judicial review therefore falls outside Parliament's constituent power.
The 42nd Amendment of 1976 had earlier curtailed the High Courts' review power and barred them from considering the validity of any Central law. The 43rd Amendment of 1977 restored the original position. It also omitted Article 32A, which had barred the Supreme Court from considering the validity of State laws in proceedings under Article 32, and Article 131A, which had given the Supreme Court exclusive jurisdiction on the validity of Central laws.
Judicial Review of Amendments: From Shankari Prasad to Kesavananda Bharati
Shankari Prasad, Sajjan Singh and Golak Nath Cases
The first dispute over the amending power arose within a year of the Constitution coming into force. The First Amendment, moved by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru on 10 May 1951 and enacted on 18 June 1951, curtailed the right to property and added Article 31B and the Ninth Schedule, which protected listed land reform laws from challenge on the ground that they violated Fundamental Rights.
- Shankari Prasad (1951): The Court upheld the First Amendment. The power of Parliament under Article 368 includes the power to amend Fundamental Rights, and the word "law" in Article 13 includes only ordinary laws, not constitutional amendments.
- Sajjan Singh (1965): The Court upheld the 17th Amendment and took the same view. In a separate opinion, Justice J.R. Mudholkar raised the question whether a change in a basic feature of the Constitution could be regarded as a mere amendment or would amount to rewriting part of it. This was the first appearance of the idea of basic features.
- Golak Nath (1967): An eleven-judge bench, by a majority of 6 to 5 on 27 February 1967, reversed course while examining the 17th Amendment of 1964, which had inserted certain State Acts in the Ninth Schedule. Fundamental Rights, the Court held, have a "transcendental and immutable" position. An amendment under Article 368 is a "law" within Article 13, so an amendment that takes away or abridges a Fundamental Right is void.
The Golak Nath family held over 500 acres of farmland in Jalandhar, Punjab, and challenged a Punjab land law under which each brother could keep only thirty acres. A land reform dispute thus came to decide the nature of the amending power.
24th Amendment and the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973)
Parliament answered Golak Nath with the 24th Amendment, in force from 5 November 1971. It amended Articles 13 and 368 to declare that Parliament may abridge or take away any Fundamental Right and that such an amendment is not a "law" under Article 13. The 25th Amendment of 1971 curtailed the right to property, left the amount of compensation for acquired property to Parliament rather than the courts, and inserted Article 31C, which protected laws giving effect to certain Directive Principles from challenge. The 29th Amendment of 1972 placed two Kerala land reform Acts in the Ninth Schedule.
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala the validity of these amendments came before the largest Constitution Bench ever formed, of 13 judges. The petition was filed in 1970 by the head of the Edneer Matha in Kerala against two land reform Acts of the State. The Court heard arguments over 68 days, from 31 October 1972 to 23 March 1973, and the bench gave eleven separate judgments. Judgment was delivered on 24 April 1973, and the main points are these.
- Golak Nath was overruled, and the 24th Amendment and the 29th Amendment were upheld.
- By a margin of 7 to 6 the Court held that the power to amend under Article 368 does not include the power to alter the basic structure or framework of the Constitution.
- The second part of section 3 of the 25th Amendment, which barred the courts from asking whether a law truly gave effect to the Directive Principles, was declared invalid.
- The right to property was not part of the basic structure and could be abridged. The Court also reserved to itself the right to decide whether a matter forms part of the basic structure.
Each ruling drew a reply from Parliament, and each reply came back before the Court.
| Court ruling | Parliament's response | Court's next ruling |
|---|---|---|
| Golak Nath (1967): Amendments are "law" under Article 13 | 24th Amendment (1971) amended Articles 13 and 368; 25th Amendment added Article 31C | Kesavananda Bharati (1973): Parliament may amend any part but not the basic structure |
| Kesavananda Bharati (1973): Parliament may amend any part but not the basic structure | 39th Amendment (1975) placed certain elections beyond the courts; 42nd Amendment (1976) declared no limit on the amending power | Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975) and Minerva Mills (1980) struck down the new clauses |
| Waman Rao (1981): The basic structure applies to amendments after 24 April 1973 | Laws kept being placed in the Ninth Schedule | I.R. Coelho (2007): Such laws are open to review |
Elements of the Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution
Features the Court Has Named
The Supreme Court has not defined the basic structure and has reserved to itself the right to decide whether a feature belongs to it. The list has grown from judgment to judgment and cannot be treated as closed. In Kesavananda Bharati the judges gave different lists of these features.
| Judge | Features named |
|---|---|
| Chief Justice S.M. Sikri | Supremacy of the Constitution; a republican and democratic system; the secular character of the Constitution; separation of powers; the federal character |
| Justices Shelat and Grover | The five features above, with the mandate to build a welfare state in the Directive Principles, the unity and integrity of India, and the sovereignty of the country |
| Justices Hegde and Mukherjea | The sovereignty of India; the democratic character of the polity; the unity of the country; essential features of individual freedoms; the mandate to build a welfare state |
| Justice Jaganmohan Reddy | The features in the Preamble, namely a sovereign democratic republic, social, economic and political justice, liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship, and equality of status and opportunity |
Judgments after 1973 added to these lists. The accepted present position is that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights, without affecting the basic structure. From the various judgments, the following have emerged as basic features:
- Constitutional identity: Supremacy of the Constitution; the sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the polity; the secular character; the federal character; unity and integrity of the nation; the parliamentary system.
- Rule-based government: Separation of powers among the legislature, the executive and the judiciary; the rule of law; free and fair elections; a limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.
- Judiciary: Judicial review; independence of the judiciary; effective access to justice; the powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142.
- Rights and justice: Freedom and dignity of the individual; the principle of equality; the welfare state (socio-economic justice); harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles; the principle of reasonableness.
Doctrine of Basic Structure After Kesavananda
Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain and the 39th Amendment
The 39th Amendment, enacted on 10 August 1975 during the Emergency, placed the elections of the President, the Vice-President, the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond the scrutiny of the courts. It did so by inserting Article 329A, to pre-empt the hearing of Indira Gandhi's appeal against the Allahabad High Court's decision setting aside her election to the Lok Sabha. In Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975) a five-judge bench, with Chief Justice A.N. Ray, Justices H.R. Khanna, K.K. Mathew, M.H. Beg and Y.V. Chandrachud, struck down clauses (4) and (5) of Article 329A. Those clauses had made the existing election law inapplicable to the Prime Minister's and Speaker's elections and declared pending proceedings void.
The Court held that free and fair elections, separation of powers and judicial review are essential features that no amendment can abrogate. At the same time it recognised the limits of its own scrutiny into parliamentary proceedings under Article 122. Article 329A was later omitted by the 44th Amendment of 1978.
42nd Amendment and the Minerva Mills Case (1980)
Parliament's next reply was the 42nd Amendment of 1976. It added clauses (4) and (5) to Article 368. Clause (4) provided that no amendment made under the article "shall be called in question in any court on any ground", and clause (5) declared that there should be "no limitation whatever" on Parliament's constituent power. Section 4 of the Amendment also changed Article 31C to give the Directive Principles in Part IV precedence over the Fundamental Rights in Part III.
In Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India (1980), Chief Justice Y.V. Chandrachud led a bench that unanimously struck down clauses (4) and (5) of Article 368. By 4 to 1, with Justice P.N. Bhagwati dissenting, it held section 4 of the 42nd Amendment unconstitutional. The reasoning is the core of the doctrine.
"Since the Constitution had conferred a limited amending power on the Parliament, the Parliament cannot under the exercise of that limited power enlarge that very power into an absolute power. ... The donee of a limited power cannot by the exercise of that power convert the limited power into an unlimited one." A limited amending power is therefore itself a basic feature, and the exclusion of review, which would let Parliament destroy the other features, is invalid.
On Article 31C the Chief Justice wrote that three Articles, 14, 19 and 21, stand between the freedom the Constitution promises and "the abyss of unrestrained power". The Constitution as printed today carries a note that these clauses of Article 368 were declared invalid by the Supreme Court in Minerva Mills.
Ninth Schedule and the I.R. Coelho Case (2007)
Article 31B protects the Acts and Regulations listed in the Ninth Schedule from being declared void on the ground that they violate any Fundamental Right. It is wider than Article 31A, which saves five categories of law, because Article 31B protects any law placed in the Schedule whether or not it falls in those categories. The Schedule held 13 Acts and Regulations in 1951 and 282 by 2013, and the 2024 edition of the Constitution numbers its entries up to 284.
The State laws in the Schedule deal with land reforms and the abolition of the zamindari system, and the laws of Parliament deal with other matters. Entry 257A, inserted by the 76th Amendment in 1994, is the Tamil Nadu Act on reservation of seats in educational institutions and of posts in State services, placed there to protect its 69 per cent reservation from judicial review.
In Waman Rao v. Union of India (1981), a five-judge bench held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule before the Kesavananda Bharati judgment could not be challenged on the ground that they violate Fundamental Rights, while the basic structure test applies to amendments made after 24 April 1973. The Court applied the doctrine of prospective overruling, first used in Golak Nath (1967), under which a decision operates in the future and does not reopen past ones.
In I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu, decided in January 2007 by a nine-judge bench, the Court held that there can be no blanket immunity from judicial review for laws placed in the Ninth Schedule. Laws placed there after 24 April 1973 are open to challenge if they violate the rights in Articles 14, 15, 19 and 21 or the basic structure, because judicial review is a basic feature and cannot be taken away by listing a law in a Schedule.
Bommai and NJAC: Secularism and Judicial Independence as Basic Features
Later benches kept adding to the list. In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994), the bench held that secularism is one of the basic features of the Constitution, a positive concept of equal treatment of all religions, and that the proclamation of President's Rule is justiciable. Before the judgment Article 356 had been invoked more than 90 times, often on doubtful grounds, and Dr Ambedkar had hoped in the Constituent Assembly that it would remain a "dead letter".
The independence of the judiciary is a basic feature, and it decided the fate of the 99th Amendment. The Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014, passed by the Lok Sabha on 13 August 2014 and by the Rajya Sabha on 14 August 2014, inserted Article 124A and created the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) to replace the collegium system. The Commission would have had six members, namely the Chief Justice of India as chairperson, two senior Supreme Court judges, the Union Law Minister, and two eminent persons nominated by a committee of the Prime Minister, the Chief Justice and the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
On 16 October 2015 a five-judge Constitution Bench, in Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India, struck down the Amendment and the NJAC Act by a 4 to 1 majority. Justices J.S. Khehar, Madan Lokur, Kurian Joseph and Adarsh Kumar Goel held that the NJAC compromised the independence of the judiciary and went against the basic structure. Justice Jasti Chelameswar dissented, holding that the composition raised no constitutional issue and could act as a check on trade-offs within the collegium.
The collegium that was restored grew out of the three Judges Cases of 1981, 1993 and 1998. On 3 November 2015 the Court said that it was open to bringing greater transparency to the collegium system. A criticism of the judgment came on 8 December 2022 from Vice-President Jagdeep Dhankhar, who argued that striking down the Amendment through the basic structure doctrine was an encroachment by the judiciary on Parliament and a violation of separation of powers. The majority's answer is that an executive role in appointments would compromise the independence of the judiciary, which the basic structure protects.
Judicial Activism, Judicial Restraint and Judicial Overreach
Judicial Activism, Restraint and Overreach Defined
Judicial activism is a judicial philosophy under which courts go beyond the applicable law to consider the wider social consequences of their decisions. The term was introduced by Arthur Schlesinger Jr in a January 1947 article in Fortune magazine. In India the phenomenon grew after the Emergency, when the courts reached out to the public directly, and its chief instrument is public interest litigation. Judicial restraint is the opposite approach. The court favours the status quo, respects precedent, keeps to narrow rulings and may decline to hear a question that is better decided by another organ.
Critics who say that courts have entered a field that belongs to the legislature or the executive describe this as judicial overreach. The argument is that judicial activism not grounded in a textual commitment to the Constitution or a statute raises questions of accountability, since judges are not chosen by any democratic process and do not answer to the electorate.
| Point | Judicial activism | Judicial restraint | Judicial overreach |
|---|---|---|---|
| What the court does | Goes beyond the applicable law to consider wider consequences | Favours the status quo and follows precedent | Enters the field of the legislature or executive |
| Indian example | Acting on newspaper reports of undertrials in the Hussainara Khatoon case | The presumption that a statute is constitutional | Critics' description of directions on pollution or electoral reform |
| Main concern | Overburdened courts | A case may go unheard when the question is left to another organ | Blurring of separation of powers |
Public Interest Litigation: Origins and Landmark Cases
Public interest litigation (PIL), also called social action litigation, is litigation undertaken to secure the public interest and is a relaxation of the traditional rule of locus standi, under which only a person whose own right is violated may approach a court. Around 1979 the Supreme Court began to hear cases brought by others on behalf of the aggrieved. Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer were among the first judges to admit them, and it was in S.P. Gupta v. Union of India that the Court defined the term in the Indian context.
- Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979): Newspaper reports in 1979 told of prisoners in Bihar who had spent longer in jail than the sentences for their offences. A petition in December 1979 before a bench headed by Justice Bhagwati led the Court to order free legal aid and fast hearings, and about 40,000 prisoners were released.
- Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration (1980): A prison inmate of Tihar jail sent a note to Justice Krishna Iyer about torture of prisoners, and the judge converted it into a petition. The Court later abandoned the practice of treating letters as petitions.
- Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India (1984): Justice Bhagwati observed that the problems of the poor are qualitatively different from those that had occupied the Court so far, and that if the Court blindly followed the adversarial procedure in their case they would never be able to enforce their Fundamental Rights.
- Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan: A PIL filed after Bhanwari Devi was raped; the Court recognised sexual harassment at the workplace as a violation of Articles 14, 15 and 21 and issued guidelines for its prevention.
- M.C. Mehta v. Union of India: The Court shut several industries and allowed them to reopen only after controlled disposal of pollution in the Ganga basin.
A PIL may be filed under Article 32 in the Supreme Court or under Article 226 in the High Court. The Court has also warned against misuse. The petitioner must show that the petition serves the public interest and not a private gain, and the Court has said that "an action at law is not a game of chess" and that a litigant must come with clean hands.
Judicial Activism and Democracy: Accountability and Electoral Reform
Judicial activism has had three main effects on the political system. It has democratised the judicial system by giving access to the courts to groups as well as individuals. It has forced executive accountability. And it has tried to make the electoral system freer and fairer.
On accountability, the Court directed the CBI to investigate politicians and bureaucrats in the hawala case, the Narasimha Rao case and the illegal allotment of petrol pumps. The hawala case began when the journalist Vineet Narain filed a PIL under Article 32 on 4 October 1993, alleging that the CBI and revenue authorities had failed to investigate the "Jain diaries". The judgment of 18 December 1997 gave a list of 26 pronouncements, the most important of which protected the CBI Director from removal by the government for two years.
On elections, the Court in 2002 and again in 2003 made it mandatory for every candidate to disclose criminal, financial and educational background in an affidavit filed with the Election Commission, so that voters can choose on accurate knowledge. The case arose from a PIL by professors of the Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad, whose association became the Association for Democratic Reforms.
The same activism has costs. It has overburdened the courts, and it has blurred the line between the judiciary and the other two organs. Reducing air or sound pollution, investigating corruption or reforming elections are matters for the administration under the supervision of the legislatures. Democratic government depends on each organ respecting the powers and jurisdiction of the others.
Why PIL Grew and How Powerful the Supreme Court Is
PIL grew for identifiable reasons:
- Emergency and its aftermath: After the Emergency, during which governments tried to control the judiciary, the courts reached out directly to the public.
- Relaxed standing: The rule of locus standi was loosened, so that public-spirited citizens, social organisations and lawyers could file on behalf of the needy and the deprived.
- Informal procedure: Letters and telegrams to the court, and newspaper reports, were treated as petitions.
- Wide writ powers: Articles 32 and 226 let any person move the courts directly for the enforcement of rights; Article 226 reaches "any other purpose" as well.
- Constitutional commitments: Article 39A on free legal aid and the Directive Principles supplied the values that the courts read into rights.
- Failures of enforcement: In the hawala case the allegation was that the CBI and the revenue authorities had failed to investigate, and such complaints gave the courts an occasion to step in.
Whether the Supreme Court is "the world's most powerful judiciary" depends on the comparison, and there are points on each side.
- Points in favour: The right to approach the Court directly under Article 32; discretionary appeals from any tribunal under Article 136; orders for complete justice under Article 142; the power to strike down amendments through the basic structure; PIL and suo motu cognizance; binding precedent under Article 141; the power to punish contempt of itself and of other courts; and, through the collegium, a decisive voice in appointing its own judges.
- Points against: The Court tests constitutionality and not wisdom, Parliament can still amend the Constitution within the basic structure, the Court has held that it cannot create "deemed assent" under Article 142, and judges can be removed by the President on an address by Parliament for proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
In the United States, by comparison, the Supreme Court has held 176 Acts of Congress unconstitutional as of 2014, so strong review is not unique to India.
Judicial Legislation: Guidelines, Vishaka and Passive Euthanasia
Judicial legislation is the name given to rules that a court lays down in the absence of a law, so that they operate as law until the legislature acts. Two instances show how it works. In Vishaka the Court issued guidelines against workplace sexual harassment, drawing on Articles 14, 15 and 21. In Common Cause v. Union of India (2018) a five-judge bench held that "living wills" or advance medical directives allow consenting patients who are terminally ill or in a vegetative state to be passively euthanised, and stated that its decision becomes the law of the land until Parliament enacts a suitable law.
The roots lie in Aruna Shanbaug (2011). On 7 March 2011 the Court rejected the plea to discontinue the life support of Aruna Shanbaug, a nurse who had been in a vegetative state since an assault on 27 November 1973, but it legalised passive euthanasia, noting that it included withdrawing treatment or food that would allow the patient to live. Active euthanasia, such as the administration of lethal compounds, remains illegal. In January 2023 the Court streamlined the guidelines in Common Cause.
The case for such guidelines is that they protect rights where the legislature is silent and last only until it legislates. The case against is that law-making belongs to the legislature, and in 2014 a three-judge bench observed that the Aruna Shanbaug judgment was inconsistent in itself, because it says that euthanasia can be allowed only by the legislature and yet lays down guidelines. The concern is also that the judiciary becomes a super-legislature or super-executive, a warning that Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar gave the Constituent Assembly on 23 November 1949.
Separation of Powers: Checks and Balances in India
The Constitution rests on a limited separation of powers with checks and balances. Parliament is supreme in making laws and amending the Constitution, the executive in implementing them, and the judiciary in settling disputes and deciding whether laws accord with the Constitution. Separation of powers is itself a basic feature, and Article 50, a Directive Principle, directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
The organs overlap in ways that a strict separation would forbid:
- Executive and legislature: In the parliamentary system the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts, so the two organs are joined and not walled off.
- Ordinances: The President can legislate by ordinance, though not when both Houses are in session, and a court can test the satisfaction behind one for mala fides.
- Courts and law-making: Court-made guidelines operate as law until the legislature acts.
Each organ also checks the others. The courts review laws, ordinances and executive action. Parliament can remove a Supreme Court judge by an address supported by a special majority of each House on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, following the procedure of the Judges Enquiry Act, 1968. The executive's role in appointments was the subject of the NJAC dispute. Conflict among the organs remains a recurrent theme of Indian politics.
Judicial Review Today: Current Position
Where the Law Stands
The leading statements of the position today are these:
- The basic structure doctrine of Kesavananda Bharati (1973) limits the amending power under Article 368. Parliament may amend by addition, variation or repeal, but may not destroy the basic features.
- Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 remain open to review under I.R. Coelho (2007).
- The NJAC judgment of 2015 remains the leading authority on judicial independence as a basic feature.
- Decisions on assent to Bills under Articles 200 and 201 cannot be reviewed before a Bill becomes law, and courts cannot read a "deemed assent" into the Constitution (Special Reference No. 1 of 2025).
Previous Year UPSC‑CSE Questions
Each Prelims question is explained option by option, and each Mains question comes with an answer outline.
- UPSC Prelims 2026'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:
How to approach this Prelims question
Approach: Read Article 13(3)(a). It says that "law" includes any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law. X is right that ordinances, orders, rules and regulations are included, but X does not accept custom or usage, which the text names. Y's view that custom is included is therefore the one that matches the Article, and the conclusion that is correct is the one that holds only Y's view to be right.
Trap to watch: Siding with X because the list in Article 13 looks long is the mistake; custom or usage is named in the text.
Why each option is right or wrong:
- (a) 'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom: Wrong. Article 13(3)(a) names custom or usage having the force of law.
- (b) The view of 'Y' that 'law' included custom is not correct: Wrong. Y's view matches the text of Article 13(3)(a).
- (c) The views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct: Wrong. X's refusal to include custom contradicts the text.
- (d) The view of only 'Y' is correct: Correct. Only Y's view that custom is included agrees with the definition.
Answer: (d) The view of only 'Y' is correct. Article 13(3)(a) includes custom or usage, so only Y's view is correct.
- UPSC Prelims 2025Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
- I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
- II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
How to approach this Prelims question
Approach: Recall two rules from the Supreme Court's decisions on the pardoning power. The exercise is not subject to judicial review except where the decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala fide or discriminatory, so statement I is correct. The power is exercised on the advice of the Union Cabinet, so statement II is wrong.
Trap to watch: Accepting statement II because the President holds the power is the mistake; it is exercised on the Cabinet's advice.
Why each option is right or wrong:
- (a) I only: Correct. Review is limited to decisions that are arbitrary, irrational, mala fide or discriminatory.
- (b) II only: Wrong. The President acts on the advice of the Union Cabinet.
- (c) Both I and II: Wrong. Statement II is incorrect.
- (d) Neither I nor II: Wrong. Statement I is correct.
Answer: (a) I only. Review of a pardon is limited to arbitrary, irrational, mala fide or discriminatory decisions, and the President acts on the Cabinet's advice.
- UPSC Prelims 2024As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of :
- Addition
- Variation
- Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
How to approach this Prelims question
Approach: Read Article 368(1). It says that Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in the article. All three modes are named, subject to the limit that the basic structure cannot be altered.
Trap to watch: Leaving out repeal is the mistake; Article 368(1) names addition, variation and repeal.
Why each option is right or wrong:
- (a) 1 and 2 only: Wrong. Repeal is also named in Article 368(1).
- (b) 2 and 3 only: Wrong. Addition is also named in Article 368(1).
- (c) 1 and 3 only: Wrong. Variation is also named in Article 368(1).
- (d) 1, 2 and 3: Correct. Article 368(1) names addition, variation and repeal.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. Addition, variation and repeal are all modes of amendment under Article 368.
- UPSC Prelims 2023In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?
How to approach this Prelims question
Approach: Separate due process from India's original standard of procedure established by law. Due process lets a court ask not only whether the authority had the power to make a law but also whether the law and its procedure are fair and reasonable. Of the four options, the principle of natural justice is the one that expresses this demand for fairness.
Trap to watch: Choosing procedure established by law is the mistake; that is the Indian phrase in Article 21, not due process.
Why each option is right or wrong:
- (a) The principle of natural justice: Correct. Due process demands that a law and its procedure be fair, and natural justice is the principle of fairness among the four options.
- (b) The procedure established by law: Wrong. This is the phrase in Article 21, which in the original reading asked only whether a valid law had prescribed a procedure.
- (c) Fair application of law: Wrong. It concerns how a law is applied, not whether the law itself is fair.
- (d) Equality before law: Wrong. Equality before law is a separate guarantee.
Answer: (a) The principle of natural justice. Due process demands fairness of a law and its procedure, which is what natural justice expresses.
- UPSC Prelims 2020Consider the following statements :
- The Constitution of India defines its 'basic structure' in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
- The Constitution of India provides for 'judicial review' to safeguard the citizens' liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
How to approach this Prelims question
Approach: Check whether the text of the Constitution itself says each thing. The phrase "basic structure" is not in the text; the Supreme Court has not defined it and names its features case by case. The phrase "judicial review" is not in the text either, although several articles confer the power. Neither statement describes what the Constitution provides in those words.
Trap to watch: Accepting statement 1 because federalism and secularism are basic features is the mistake; the Constitution does not define them as such.
Why each option is right or wrong:
- (a) 1 only: Wrong. The Constitution does not define the basic structure; the Court identifies its elements judgment by judgment.
- (b) 2 only: Wrong. The phrase judicial review nowhere appears in the Constitution, though the power is conferred by several articles.
- (c) Both 1 and 2: Wrong. Neither statement matches the text of the Constitution.
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2: Correct. The basic structure is judge-made and judicial review is implied rather than named.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2. The Constitution neither defines the basic structure nor uses the phrase judicial review.
- UPSC Prelims 2020In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by
How to approach this Prelims question
Approach: Find where the separation is written. Article 50 states that the State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State, and Article 50 sits in Part IV, the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Trap to watch: Choosing the Preamble is the mistake; the direction is in Article 50, a Directive Principle.
Why each option is right or wrong:
- (a) the Preamble of the Constitution: Wrong. The direction is stated in Article 50, in Part IV, and not in the Preamble.
- (b) a Directive Principle of State Policy: Correct. Article 50 in Part IV directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services.
- (c) the Seventh Schedule: Wrong. The Seventh Schedule divides legislative subjects between the Union and the States.
- (d) the conventional practice: Wrong. The direction is written into Article 50 and is not a convention.
Answer: (b) a Directive Principle of State Policy. Article 50, a Directive Principle, enjoins the separation.
- UPSC Prelims 2019Consider the following statements :
- The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
- The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
How to approach this Prelims question
Approach: Match each amendment to what it did. The 39th Amendment of 1975, not the 44th, inserted Article 329A to place the elections of the Prime Minister and the Speaker beyond the courts, and the 44th Amendment omitted it. The 99th Amendment, which created the National Judicial Appointments Commission, was struck down on 16 October 2015 as violating the independence of the judiciary.
Trap to watch: Accepting statement 1 because the 44th Amendment dealt with Article 329A is the mistake; it omitted the article the 39th inserted.
Why each option is right or wrong:
- (a) 1 only: Wrong. Statement 1 names the wrong amendment, because Article 329A came from the 39th Amendment and was omitted by the 44th.
- (b) 2 only: Correct. The 99th Amendment was struck down by a 4 to 1 majority on 16 October 2015.
- (c) Both 1 and 2: Wrong. Statement 1 is incorrect.
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2: Wrong. Statement 2 is correct.
Answer: (b) 2 only. Article 329A came from the 39th Amendment, not the 44th, and the 99th Amendment was struck down for violating judicial independence.
- UPSC Prelims 2019The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
How to approach this Prelims question
Approach: Link the Ninth Schedule to its date. It came with the First Amendment, enacted on 18 June 1951 and moved by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, which added Article 31B and the Schedule to protect land reform laws. The question turns on that date.
Trap to watch: Choosing Indira Gandhi because of later Ninth Schedule additions is the mistake; the Schedule began in 1951.
Why each option is right or wrong:
- (a) Jawaharlal Nehru: Correct. The First Amendment of 1951, moved by Nehru, added the Ninth Schedule.
- (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri: Wrong. The Schedule dates from the First Amendment of 1951, when Nehru was Prime Minister.
- (c) Indira Gandhi: Wrong. The Schedule dates from 1951, under Nehru; later amendments only added more laws to it.
- (d) Morarji Desai: Wrong. The Schedule dates from 1951, under Nehru.
Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru. The Ninth Schedule came in 1951, under Nehru.
- UPSC Prelims 2019With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
How to approach this Prelims question
Approach: Read what Article 142 gives. The Supreme Court may pass any decree or make any order necessary for doing complete justice in a matter pending before it. The question assumes that provisions of ordinary laws cannot limit this constitutional power, and the only option that restates this is the one saying the Court is not constrained by laws made by Parliament. Clause (2) of the Article is, however, expressly subject to any law made by Parliament, and the Court has advised that Article 142 cannot be used to substitute decisions that the Constitution gives to the President or a Governor.
Trap to watch: Reading Article 142 as about the Election Commission or Emergencies is the mistake; it concerns the Court's own orders.
Why each option is right or wrong:
- (a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law: Wrong. Article 142 concerns the Supreme Court's own orders for complete justice and says nothing about the Election Commission.
- (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament: Correct. Article 142 is a constitutional power of the Court that ordinary laws cannot limit.
- (c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet: Wrong. Article 142 does not deal with Emergencies or the President.
- (d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature: Wrong. The division of legislative power is dealt with in Articles 246, 251 and 254, not in Article 142.
Answer: (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament. Article 142 is a constitutional power of the Supreme Court that ordinary laws cannot limit.
- UPSC Prelims 2018Consider the following statements :
- The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
How to approach this Prelims question
Approach: Apply I.R. Coelho (2007). The Ninth Schedule is part of the Constitution, so Parliament places laws in it by constitutional amendment, as the 76th Amendment did for entry 257A; statement 1 is correct. Article 31B protects those laws from challenge on the ground of Fundamental Rights, but a law placed there after 24 April 1973 can be tested against Articles 14, 15, 19 and 21 and the basic structure, so statement 2 is wrong.
Trap to watch: Accepting statement 2 is the mistake; after Coelho, laws placed after 24 April 1973 can be reviewed.
Why each option is right or wrong:
- (a) 1 only: Correct. Parliament adds laws to the Ninth Schedule by constitutional amendment, for example entry 257A in 1994.
- (b) 2 only: Wrong. Coelho opened laws placed after 24 April 1973 to judicial review.
- (c) Both 1 and 2: Wrong. Statement 2 is wrong after Coelho.
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2: Wrong. Statement 1 is correct.
Answer: (a) 1 only. Parliament places laws in the Ninth Schedule by amendment, and those added after 24 April 1973 can still be reviewed.
- UPSC Prelims 2017In India, Judicial Review implies
How to approach this Prelims question
Approach: Ask what judicial review tests. It tests whether a legislative enactment or an executive order of the Centre or a State is consistent with the Constitution, and a law found ultra vires is declared void. It does not test whether the policy is wise, it does not vet Bills before they become law, and the Court's power to review its own judgments is a separate power.
Trap to watch: Choosing (d) because the Court reviews its own judgments is the mistake; that is a separate power under Article 137.
Why each option is right or wrong:
- (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders: Correct. This is the definition of judicial review.
- (b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures: Wrong. Judicial review tests whether a law is within power and consistent with the Constitution; it does not judge whether the policy behind the law is wise.
- (c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President: Wrong. Review operates on laws in a concrete case, and the Court does not vet Bills before they become law.
- (d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases: Wrong. The Supreme Court's power to review its own judgment is a separate power under Article 137.
Answer: (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders. A law or order that violates the Constitution is declared void, while the wisdom of a policy and Bills awaiting assent lie outside review.
- UPSC Prelims 2003The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by
How to approach this Prelims question
Approach: Recall which amendment created the Schedule. The First Amendment of 1951 added Article 31B and the Ninth Schedule to protect land reform and other listed laws from judicial review on the ground of Fundamental Rights.
Trap to watch: Choosing the Ninth Amendment because the numbers match is the mistake; the First Amendment added it.
Why each option is right or wrong:
- (a) First Amendment: Correct. It added the Ninth Schedule in 1951.
- (b) Eighth Amendment: Wrong. The Ninth Schedule came with the First Amendment, not a later one.
- (c) Ninth Amendment: Wrong. The number of the Schedule does not match the number of the amendment; the Schedule came with the First Amendment.
- (d) Forty second Amendment: Wrong. It came in 1976, long after the Schedule existed.
Answer: (a) First Amendment. The Ninth Schedule came with Article 31B in 1951 to protect land reform laws from challenge.
- UPSC Mains 2026 GS‑IIWhat is meant by judicial legislation? In this context, discuss the verdicts of the apex court allowing "passive euthanasia" and a "living will".
Answer outline
The outline sets out what the question asks, the main arguments, relevant examples and the direction of the conclusion; it is not a full model answer.
Introduction: Judicial legislation is a court laying down rules where there is no law, to operate until the legislature acts.
Body (sub-themes to develop):
- Aruna Shanbaug (7 March 2011): Life support not withdrawn in that case, but passive euthanasia legalised.
- Common Cause (2018): A five-judge bench allowed living wills for the terminally ill or those in a vegetative state, and its decision is the law of the land until Parliament legislates; active euthanasia remains illegal; guidelines streamlined in January 2023.
- Debate: Protection of the right to die with dignity against the legislature's role in making law.
Conclusion: The verdicts are stop-gap judicial legislation that call for a statute.
- UPSC Mains 2024 GS‑IIExplain the reasons for the growth of public interest litigation in India. As a result of it, has the Indian Supreme Court emerged as the world's most powerful judiciary?
Answer outline
Introduction: PIL relaxed the rule of locus standi from about 1979, with Justices Bhagwati and Krishna Iyer.
Body (sub-themes to develop):
- Reasons: The Emergency and its aftermath, relaxed standing, informal procedure, wide writ powers under Articles 32 and 226, Article 39A, executive failure.
- Powerful: Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142, review of amendments, suo motu cognizance, contempt, the collegium.
- Limits: No review of wisdom, Parliament can amend within the basic structure, no deemed assent, removal of judges by Parliament, and strong review also exists in the United States.
Conclusion: The Court is among the most powerful, but the power is bounded by the Constitution.
- UPSC Mains 2020 GS‑IIJudicial Legislation is antithetical to the doctrine of separation of powers as envisaged in the Indian Constitution. In this context justify the filing of large number of public interest petitions praying for issuing guidelines to executive authorities.
Answer outline
Introduction: Court guidelines fill gaps the legislature has left, which sits uneasily with separation of powers.
Body (sub-themes to develop):
- Why petitions seek guidelines: Relaxed locus standi, wide writ powers, executive inaction on rights, pollution, custody and elections.
- The concern: The judiciary becomes a super-legislature or super-executive, and the courts are overburdened.
- Justification: Guidelines such as Vishaka and Common Cause operate until the legislature acts; the Court does not review wisdom and has declined to set timelines or create deemed assent.
Conclusion: Guidelines are justified as stop-gaps that invite legislation and do not replace it.
- UPSC Mains 2019 GS‑II"Parliament's power to amend the Constitution is a limited power and it cannot be enlarged into absolute power." In the light of this statement explain whether Parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution can destroy the Basic Structure of the Constitution by expanding its amending power?
Answer outline
Introduction: Article 368 lets Parliament amend by addition, variation or repeal, but Kesavananda Bharati (1973) held by 7 to 6 that it cannot alter the basic structure.
Body (sub-themes to develop):
- Background: Golak Nath (1967) and the 24th Amendment (1971); the 42nd Amendment (1976) added clauses (4) and (5) declaring no limit.
- Minerva Mills (1980): The donee of a limited power cannot convert it into an unlimited one; a limited amending power is itself a basic feature.
- Application: Waman Rao (1981) and Coelho (2007) apply the cut-off of 24 April 1973; the NJAC judgment (2015) shows the doctrine in use.
Conclusion: Parliament can amend but cannot destroy, and cannot expand its power to do so.
- UPSC Mains 2019 GS‑IIDo you think that Constitution of India does not accept principle of strict separation of powers rather it is based on the principle of 'checks and balance'? Explain.
Answer outline
Introduction: India follows a limited separation of powers in which each organ checks the others.
Body (sub-themes to develop):
- Overlaps: The executive is responsible to the legislature; the President's ordinance power; court-made guidelines until the legislature acts.
- Checks: Judicial review of laws and executive action; removal of judges by address of Parliament; the executive's role in appointments, as in the NJAC dispute.
- Basic feature: Separation of powers cannot be abrogated by amendment, as Raj Narain held.
Conclusion: India's model rests on checks and balances, not strict separation.
- UPSC Mains 2017 GS‑IICritically examine the Supreme Court's judgement on 'National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, 2014' with reference to appointment of judges of higher judiciary in India.
Answer outline
Introduction: The 99th Amendment (2014) created the NJAC, which the Court struck down on 16 October 2015 by 4 to 1.
Body (sub-themes to develop):
- The Commission: Six members including the Chief Justice, two senior judges, the Law Minister and two eminent persons.
- Reasoning: Independence of the judiciary is a basic feature, and an executive role would compromise it.
- Dissent and criticism: Justice Chelameswar saw a check on the collegium; the criticism of December 2022 is that the Court overstepped on separation of powers.
- Way forward: Transparency in the collegium.
Conclusion: The judgment protects independence but leaves the collegium needing reform.
- UPSC Mains 2016 GS‑IIWhat was held in the Coelho case? In this context, can you say that judicial review is of key importance amongst the basic features of the Constitution?
Answer outline
Introduction: In I.R. Coelho (2007) a nine-judge bench held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 are open to judicial review.
Body (sub-themes to develop):
- Holding: No blanket immunity under Article 31B; such laws are tested against Articles 14, 15, 19 and 21 and the basic structure, because judicial review cannot be removed by listing a law in a Schedule.
- Why judicial review is key: Minerva Mills struck down the exclusion of review from Article 368, and Raj Narain held that review, free elections and separation of powers cannot be abrogated; without review no other basic feature can be enforced.
- Continuity: Kesavananda 1973, Raj Narain 1975, Waman Rao 1981, L. Chandra Kumar 1997 on Articles 32 and 226.
Conclusion: Judicial review is the feature through which the other basic features are secured.
- UPSC Mains 2014 GS‑IIStarting from inventing the 'basic structure' doctrine, the judiciary has played a highly proactive role in ensuring that India develops into a thriving democracy. In light of the statement, evaluate the role played by judicial activism in achieving the ideals of democracy.
Answer outline
Introduction: From Kesavananda Bharati (1973) the judiciary set limits on majorities, and then widened access to justice through PIL.
Body (sub-themes to develop):
- Contribution: The basic structure cases; rights for prisoners and the poor through Hussainara Khatoon, Sunil Batra and Bandhua Mukti Morcha; accountability in the hawala case; affidavits of candidates.
- Costs: Overburdened courts and a blurred separation of powers.
- Way forward: Restraint, with PIL kept for genuine public interest.
Conclusion: Activism strengthened democracy where it protected rights and should yield where it governs.
Sources
- Legislative Department, Government of India: The Constitution of India
- NCERT: Class 11 Political Science: Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter 6
- Supreme Court of India: Special Reference No. 1 of 2025, opinion of 20 November 2025
- Press Information Bureau: The Constitution of India, commemorative booklet, page 93
- Wikipedia: Judicial review in India
- Wikipedia: Basic structure doctrine
- Wikipedia: Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
- Wikipedia: I. C. Golaknath and Others v. State of Punjab and Anothers
- Wikipedia: Minerva Mills v. Union of India
- Wikipedia: Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
- Wikipedia: Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
- Wikipedia: S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
- Wikipedia: National Judicial Appointments Commission
- Wikipedia: Collegium system
- Wikipedia: Public interest litigation in India
- Wikipedia: Judicial activism
- Wikipedia: Judicial restraint
- Wikipedia: Euthanasia in India
- Wikipedia: Aruna Shanbaug case
- Wikipedia: Association for Democratic Reforms
- Wikipedia: Hawala scandal
- Wikipedia: Marbury v. Madison
- Wikipedia: Judicial review in the United States
- Wikipedia: Parliamentary sovereignty
- Wikipedia: First Amendment of the Constitution of India
- Wikipedia: Twenty-fourth Amendment of the Constitution of India
- Wikipedia: Twenty-fifth Amendment of the Constitution of India
- Wikipedia: Thirty-ninth Amendment of the Constitution of India
- Wikipedia: Forty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India
- Wikipedia: Forty-fourth Amendment of the Constitution of India
- UPSC: Civil Services Examination question papers
Editorial Disclaimer
This article draws on the text of the Constitution, the current NCERT textbooks, the Supreme Court's opinions and the other sources listed under Sources.