UPSC Prelims 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key: Every Option Explained

Answer: (b) Only two

SEBI's Alternative Investment Funds Regulations, 2012 define an AIF as a privately pooled fund, and sort AIFs into three categories: Category I includes venture capital funds, and Category III includes hedge funds.

Bonds and stocks are ordinary securities, not pooled investment funds, so they are not AIFs. Only hedge funds and venture capital are, answer (b).

Sources: Alternative investment fund (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) I and II only

The RBI earns most of its income from interest on the government securities it holds and from its dealings in foreign currency, including interest on foreign assets and gains on selling foreign exchange (I and II).

It does not run pension funds or lend to private companies (III and IV). Printing notes is a cost for the RBI, not a source of income (V). Answer (a), I and II only.

Sources: Reserve Bank of India (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) Only one

Row I is wrong: the Directorate of Enforcement does enforce the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, but it works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Row II is correct: the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence is the anti-smuggling agency that enforces the Customs Act, 1962, under the Department of Revenue.

Row III is wrong on the function: the Directorate General of Systems and Data Management designs and runs the IT systems of Customs and indirect taxes. Data analytics to catch tax evaders is the job of a separate body, the Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management (DGARM), set up by CBIC in July 2017 as its apex body for data analytics and risk management. Only one row is correct, answer (a).

Sources: Enforcement Directorate (Wikipedia); Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (Wikipedia); PIB: Detection of GST Evasion (DGARM)

Answer: (b) II only

Statement I is wrong: the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report is required by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) for the top 1,000 listed companies by market capitalisation, not by the RBI and not for all listed companies.

Statement II is correct: the BRSR is about environmental, social and governance performance, so its disclosures are largely non-financial. Answer (b), II only.

Sources: SEBI: Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (board note, 2021)

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Statement I is wrong: income from poultry farming, wool rearing and similar allied activities is not agricultural income under the Income-tax Act, so it is taxable like other business income.

Statement II is correct: agricultural land in rural areas is excluded from the definition of a 'capital asset' in section 2(14) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Answer (d).

Sources: Income tax in India (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) I and III only

Statement I is correct: India joined the US-led Minerals Security Partnership in June 2023.

Statement II is wrong: India depends heavily on imports for many of the 30 critical minerals it identified in 2023, such as lithium and cobalt, which is why the Critical Mineral Mission was launched.

Statement III is correct: the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023 lets the Central Government alone auction mining leases and composite licences for listed critical minerals. Answer (c), I and III only.

Sources: Minerals Security Partnership (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Statement II is correct: bondholders lend money to the company, while shareholders own it. Statement III is correct: when a company pays out, and especially if it is wound up, bondholders are repaid before shareholders.

Both facts explain Statement I: a lender with a fixed claim and first right to repayment carries less risk than an owner whose return depends on profits. Answer (a).

Sources: Bond (finance) (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) I and II only

Statement I is correct: India's exchanges account for a very large share of the equity options contracts traded worldwide, a boom SEBI itself has flagged.

Statement II is correct: in early 2024 the market value of Indian stocks overtook Hong Kong's, making India one of the largest stock markets in the world.

Statement III is wrong: SEBI regulates the securities market, warns investors about the risks of derivatives trading and acts against unregistered investment advisers. Answer (a), I and II only.

Sources: Securities and Exchange Board of India (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

A circular economy keeps materials in use through reuse, repair and recycling. That cuts the need for fresh raw materials (Statement II) and reduces waste in production (Statement III).

Both explain Statement I: mining, processing and disposing of materials are major sources of greenhouse gases, so using fewer new materials and wasting less lowers emissions. Answer (a).

Sources: Circular economy (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) I and II only

Statement I is correct: a capital receipt either creates a liability (borrowing) or reduces the Government's assets (disinvestment, recovery of loans).

Statement II is correct: borrowings and disinvestment proceeds are capital receipts. Statement III is wrong: interest received on loans is a revenue receipt and creates no liability. Answer (a), I and II only.

Sources: NCERT Class 12, Introductory Macroeconomics, Chapter 5

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Raja Ram Mohan Roy respected the old philosophical systems of India, especially the Vedanta, and translated the Upanishads (I is correct).

He also wanted Indians to take up rational and scientific thinking and argued for human dignity and the equality of men and women, campaigning against sati (II is correct). Answer (c).

Sources: Ram Mohan Roy (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) Only three

The Non-Cooperation programme adopted in 1920 included boycott of law courts and foreign cloth (I), strict non-violence (II) and the setting up of panchayats to settle disputes (IV).

Titles and honours were to be surrendered, not kept. So three of the four were part of the programme, answer (c).

Sources: Non-cooperation movement (1919-1922) (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

The araghatta was a water wheel carrying a chain of earthen pots on its rim. As the wheel turned, usually driven by animals, the pots scooped water from a well and emptied it into a channel. It is the forerunner of the Persian wheel. Answer (b).

Sources: Persian wheel (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) Mahendravarman I

The Pallava king Mahendravarman I (early 7th century) took the titles Mattavilasa, Vichitrachitta and Gunabhara. He also wrote the Sanskrit farce Mattavilasa Prahasana and began the rock-cut temples of the Pallavas. Answer (a).

Sources: Mahendravarman I (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) Chandragupta II

Faxian travelled in India from about 399 to 412 CE, during the reign of the Gupta ruler Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya), and left an account of the Gupta kingdom. Answer (b).

Sources: Faxian (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) Rajendra I (Chola)

Around 1025 CE the Chola king Rajendra I sent a naval expedition that raided the ports of the Srivijaya kingdom in the Malay Peninsula and Sumatra, protecting the sea trade of the Cholas. Answer (c).

Sources: Chola invasion of Srivijaya (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) Only two

Asmaka (Assaka) lay on the Godavari, so pair I is correct. Kosala lay on the Sarayu, so pair IV is correct.

Kamboja lay in the far north-west, in the region of present-day Afghanistan, not on the Vipas (Beas). Avanti, with its capital Ujjayini, lay on the Narmada and Kshipra, not the Mahanadi. Two pairs are correct, answer (b).

Sources: Mahajanapadas (Wikipedia); Ghaghara (Wikipedia): also called the Sarayu; Ayodhya (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) Lahore

Vishnu Digambar Paluskar founded the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya at Lahore on 5 May 1901, to teach Hindustani classical music to the public. Answer (d).

Sources: Gandharva Mahavidyalaya (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) district-level administration

UPSC's key gives (b), district-level administration. Ashoka's inscriptions name the rajukas, pradeshikas and yuktas among the officers he sent out on regular tours of their areas, and historians read them as officials of the district tier of Mauryan government, below the provincial governors and above the village.

Sources: Maurya Empire (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Statement I is correct: at Nagpur in December 1920 the Congress changed its goal to the attainment of Swaraj by all legitimate and peaceful means.

Statement II is correct: the programme was to proceed in stages, and civil disobedience including non-payment of taxes would follow only if Swaraj did not come within a year and the Government turned to repression. Answer (c).

Sources: Non-cooperation movement (1919-1922) (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) Only four

Bulgaria (2004), Croatia (2009), North Macedonia (2020) and Sweden (2024) are NATO members.

Austria and Serbia follow policies of neutrality and are not members. Four countries, answer (b).

Sources: Member states of NATO (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) Only four

The Andes run through seven countries: Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile and Argentina.

From the list, Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador and Venezuela lie on the Andes. Brazil and Paraguay do not. Four, answer (c).

Sources: Andes (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) None

Lake Tanganyika lies at about 6 degrees south, Tonle Sap in Cambodia at about 13 degrees north, and the Patos Lagoon in southern Brazil at about 31 degrees south.

The equator passes through none of them. Answer (d).

Sources: Lake Tanganyika (Wikipedia); Patos Lagoon (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) I, II and III

All three statements are correct for 2022-23: India is the world's largest producer and exporter of turmeric, more than 30 varieties are grown, and Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are among the main producing States. Answer (d).

Sources: PIB: Government notifies National Turmeric Board

Answer: (c) I, II and III

All three are classic evidence for continental drift: rocks of the same age and type on the coasts of Brazil and West Africa (I), placer gold deposits in Ghana whose source rock lies in the Brazil plateau (II), and the Gondwana sediments of India matched in six landmasses of the southern hemisphere (III). Answer (c).

Sources: NCERT Class 11, Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Distribution of Oceans and Continents

Answer: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

Statement I is correct: dust particles are more concentrated in subtropical and temperate areas than near the equator or the poles.

Statement II is wrong: the reason is that these areas have MORE dry winds, which lift and carry dust, not fewer. Answer (c).

Sources: NCERT Class 11, Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Composition and Structure of Atmosphere

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Statement I is correct: in January the isotherms in the Northern Hemisphere bend towards the equator over land and towards the pole over the oceans.

Statement II is correct and explains it: in winter the oceans stay warmer than the land, so a given temperature is found further north over the sea and further south over land. Answer (a).

Sources: NCERT Class 11, Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Solar Radiation and Temperature

Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Statement I is correct: chalk lets water pass through easily, while clay hardly does.

Statement II is correct and explains the chalk part: chalk is porous and its pores are connected. Statement III is wrong: clay is actually very porous, but its pores are so tiny that water cannot flow through them, so it is porous yet impermeable. Answer (c).

Sources: Permeability (Earth sciences) (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) I, II and III

All three are correct. Without the greenhouse effect of the atmosphere, the Earth's average surface temperature would be about minus 18 degrees Celsius instead of about 15 degrees (I).

The atmosphere absorbs and traps heat, keeping the planet's average temperature steady (II), and gases such as carbon dioxide are especially good at absorbing outgoing infrared radiation (III). Answer (c).

Sources: Greenhouse effect (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Both are correct. The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (2014) was started to develop and conserve indigenous breeds of cattle and buffalo in a scientific and holistic way (II).

Most low-yielding indigenous animals are kept by small and marginal farmers and landless labourers, so raising their productivity matters for the rural poor (I). Answer (c).

Sources: PIB: Rashtriya Gokul Mission

Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Statement I is correct: cement making accounts for about 8 per cent of global carbon dioxide emissions, well over 5 per cent.

Statements II and III are both correct descriptions of cement making, but only III explains the emissions: heating limestone (calcium carbonate) into lime releases carbon dioxide. Mixing clay with limestone does not by itself explain it. Answer (b).

Sources: Cement (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Statement I is correct: India did not sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health in December 2023.

Statement II is wrong: the declaration is voluntary and non-binding. Statement III reflects India's stated concern, that cutting emissions from health care could limit the growth of its health system, and that explains Statement I. Answer (c).

Sources: 2023 UN Climate Change Conference (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Statement I is correct: studies show the Earth's axis of rotation is shifting and its spin is changing slightly.

Statement II is correct as a fact about solar storms, but it does not explain the shift. Statement III is correct and explains it: as polar ice melts, the water spreads towards the equator, moving mass and so shifting the axis. Answer (b).

Sources: Polar motion (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is central to climate talks (Statement I). It sets out rules for carbon markets: country-to-country trading under Article 6.2 and a UN mechanism under Article 6.4 (Statement II).

It also provides for non-market approaches under Article 6.8 (Statement III). Both explain why Article 6 is so widely discussed. Answer (a).

Sources: Paris Agreement (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

The Asian Development Bank launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific at COP28 in December 2023, to draw private and public money into projects that protect and restore nature. Answer (a).

Sources: ADB: Launch of the Nature Solutions Finance Hub at COP28

Answer: (c) I, II and III

All three are correct. Direct air capture pulls carbon dioxide straight out of the air. The gas can then be stored underground (I), used in industry, for example in making plastics or in food processing and drinks (II), or combined with hydrogen to make synthetic, low-carbon aviation fuel (III). Answer (c).

Sources: Direct air capture (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) II and III

Statement I is wrong: the peacock (Gooty) tarantula is a spider, an arachnid, not a crustacean.

Statement II is correct: in India it lives only in a small area of forest in Andhra Pradesh, which is why it is Critically Endangered. Statement III is correct: it lives in trees, so it is arboreal. Answer (d), II and III.

Sources: Poecilotheria metallica (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) II and III only

Statement I is wrong: India's carbon dioxide emissions are close to 2 tonnes per person, far above 0.5 tonnes (though well below the world average).

Statement II is correct: in emissions from fuel combustion India is second in the Asia-Pacific, after China. Statement III is correct: electricity and heat producers are India's largest source of these emissions. Answer (c), II and III only.

Sources: Greenhouse gas emissions by India (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) Only three

Cassava is a woody shrub, ginger is a herb whose 'stem' above ground is a pseudostem of leaf sheaths, and Malabar spinach is a climbing herb. Those three pairs are correct.

Mint is a perennial herb, not an annual shrub, and papaya is a soft-stemmed, tree-like herbaceous plant rather than a woody shrub. Three pairs are correct, answer (b).

Sources: Cassava (Wikipedia); Ginger (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) II only

Statement I is wrong and statement II is correct: marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria such as Prochlorococcus produce about half of the world's oxygen, more than rainforests.

Statement III is wrong: air holds far more oxygen (about 21 per cent by volume) than even well-oxygenated surface water. Answer (b), II only.

Sources: NOAA: How much oxygen comes from the ocean?

Answer: (c) All the three

All three are alternative powertrains, meaning vehicles not driven only by a petrol or diesel engine: battery electric vehicles, hydrogen fuel cell vehicles, and fuel cell-electric hybrids that combine a fuel cell with a battery. Answer (c).

Sources: Alternative fuel vehicle (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) None

None of the three holds for ALL UAVs. Fixed-wing drones cannot land vertically or hover in place, only rotary or hybrid designs can, and many large drones run on fuel engines rather than batteries. Answer (d).

Sources: Unmanned aerial vehicle (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) Only three

The cathode of a lithium-ion battery is usually a lithium metal oxide that contains nickel, cobalt and manganese or iron (for example NMC or NCA chemistries). So cobalt, lithium and nickel make up cathodes.

Graphite is used in the anode, not the cathode. Three, answer (c).

Sources: Lithium-ion battery (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) All the three

All three contain plastic. Cigarette filters are made of cellulose acetate, a plastic; most eyeglass lenses today are polycarbonate or other plastics; and car tyres contain synthetic rubber and other polymers and shed microplastics. Answer (c).

Sources: Cigarette filter (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) Only two

Coal gasification turns coal into syngas (carbon monoxide and hydrogen). Syngas can be converted into ethanol and other alcohols, and its hydrogen makes ammonia, from which urea is produced.

Nitroglycerine is made by nitrating glycerol, not from coal gas. Two of the three, answer (b).

Sources: Coal gasification (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) These are explosives in military weapons

CL-20, HMX and LLM-105 are high-energy explosives used in military munitions; CL-20 and HMX are among the most powerful non-nuclear explosives. Answer (b).

Sources: HMX (Wikipedia); CL-20 (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) I and III only

Statement I is correct: Majorana 1 is a quantum computing chip built on topological qubits. Statement II is wrong: it was introduced by Microsoft in February 2025, not Amazon Web Services.

Statement III is correct: deep learning, which uses many-layered neural networks, is a subset of machine learning. Answer (c), I and III only.

Sources: Majorana 1 (Wikipedia); Deep learning (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) I, II and III

All three are correct. Monoclonal antibodies are laboratory-made proteins (I) that bind to one specific target antigen and so help the immune system act against it (II).

They are used against viral infections too: India's ICMR sourced a monoclonal antibody from Australia during the Nipah outbreaks in Kerala (III). Answer (d).

Sources: Monoclonal antibody (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) None

All three statements are false. Seawater is full of viruses, around ten million in a millilitre. Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. Many viruses change the gene activity (transcription) of the cells they infect. None is correct, answer (d).

Sources: Bacteriophage (Wikipedia); Marine viruses (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Activated carbon has a very large internal surface area that adsorbs pollutants, including heavy metals (II), and it can be made cheaply from carbon-rich wastes such as coconut shells and farm residue (III).

Both explain why it is an attractive tool for cleaning industrial effluents (I). Answer (a).

Sources: Activated carbon (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) I and III only

Statement I is correct: an ordinance has the same force as an Act of Parliament, so it can amend or repeal any Central Act.

Statement II is wrong: an ordinance counts as 'law' under Article 13, so it cannot take away or abridge a Fundamental Right. Statement III is correct: an ordinance can be made retrospective, taking effect from an earlier date. Answer (c), I and III only.

Sources: Ordinance (India) (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) All the three

All three pairs are correct. Itanagar takes its name from the Ita Fort, and Arunachal Pradesh has two national parks, Namdapha and Mouling (I).

Nagaland became a State through the Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962 and the State of Nagaland Act (II). Tripura was a Part C State, became a Union Territory in 1956 and a full State in 1972 (III). Answer (c).

Sources: Itanagar (Wikipedia); Nagaland (Wikipedia); Tripura (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) Only one

Only the Inter-State Council was set up under the Constitution: Article 263 lets the President establish it, which was done in 1990.

The National Security Council is an executive body set up by government order in 1998, and the Zonal Councils are statutory bodies under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Answer (a), only one.

Sources: Inter-State Council (Wikipedia); Zonal Council (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) I only

Statement I is correct: Article 163(1) speaks of functions the Governor exercises 'in his discretion', and other articles (such as the Sixth Schedule provisions) name such areas.

Statement II is wrong: under Article 200 it is the Governor who reserves a State Bill for the President. The President cannot reach down and reserve a State Bill on his or her own. Answer (a), I only.

Sources: Governor (India) (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) All the three

All three pairs are correct. Separating the judiciary from the executive is a Directive Principle (Article 50). Valuing and preserving the heritage of our composite culture is a Fundamental Duty (Article 51A(f)).

Banning the employment of children below 14 in factories, mines and hazardous work is a Fundamental Right against exploitation (Article 24). Answer (c).

Sources: Directive Principles (Wikipedia); Fundamental Duties of India (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Neither is correct. Declaring a Scheduled Area does not take away the State's executive power: the State continues to govern the area, while the Governor can modify laws for it and must report to the President.

The Union can give directions to the State about administering Scheduled Areas, but the Fifth Schedule does not let it take over their entire administration. Answer (d).

Sources: Fifth Schedule (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) None

None of the pairs is correct. The National Automotive Board works under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, the Coir Board under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, and the National Centre for Trade Information under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The ministries have been shuffled. Answer (d).

Sources: Coir Board of India (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) I and II only

Under the proviso to Article 368(2), an amendment touching the lists in the Seventh Schedule, or the extent of the executive power of the Union and the States, needs ratification by at least half of the State legislatures. So I and II need it.

The conditions of the Governor's office (Article 158) are not on that list. Answer (a), I and II only.

Sources: Amendment of the Constitution of India (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) I, II and III

All three are correct. Under Article 361 the Governor is not answerable to any court for acts done in office (I) and no criminal proceedings can be started or continued against the Governor during the term (II).

Under Article 194(2), members of a State Legislature cannot be taken to court for anything said in the House (III). Answer (d).

Sources: Governor (India) (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) Only two

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board regulates the downstream sector: refining, storage, transport, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum products and natural gas (II and III).

Production of crude oil and natural gas is upstream and outside its remit. Two, answer (b).

Sources: Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Revenue deficit = revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts = 80,000 minus 60,000 = Rs 20,000 crore (I correct).

Fiscal deficit equals the Government's borrowing = Rs 10,000 crore (II correct). Primary deficit = fiscal deficit minus interest payments = 10,000 minus 6,000 = Rs 4,000 crore (III correct). Answer (d).

Sources: NCERT Class 12, Introductory Macroeconomics, Chapter 5

Answer: (a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

The International North-South Transport Corridor, agreed by India, Iran and Russia in 2000, links Mumbai by sea to Iranian ports and then by rail and road through Iran and Central Asia to Russia and Europe. Answer (a).

Sources: International North-South Transport Corridor (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Statement I is wrong: the United States is the world's largest ethanol producer, well ahead of Brazil.

Statement II is correct: American ethanol is made mainly from corn (maize), while Brazil makes it mainly from sugarcane. Answer (d).

Sources: Ethanol fuel (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Both are correct. A wet-bulb temperature of 35 degrees Celsius is about the limit of human survival, because sweat can no longer cool the body when the air is that hot and humid (II).

The World Bank's 2022 report on India's cooling sector links such heat to wider climate stress, and peninsular India already faces floods, cyclones and droughts that heat will worsen (I). Answer (c).

Sources: Wet-bulb temperature (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) Rs 48,500 crores

Gross primary deficit = fiscal deficit minus interest payments = 50,000 minus 1,500 = Rs 48,500 crore. The non-debt capital receipts are already inside the fiscal deficit figure, so they do not enter this step. Answer (a).

Sources: NCERT Class 12, Introductory Macroeconomics, Chapter 5

Answer: (c) I, III and IV

Statement I is correct: the 15th Finance Commission recommended Rs 4,800 crore from 2022-23 to 2025-26 to reward States for better educational outcomes.

Statement II is wrong: it set the States' share of the divisible pool of Union taxes at 41 per cent, not 45. Statement III is correct: Rs 45,000 crore was set aside as performance incentive for agricultural reforms. Statement IV is correct: it brought back a tax-effort criterion in the devolution formula. Answer (c).

Sources: Fifteenth Finance Commission (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) I and III only

Statement I is correct: the IBRD lends to middle-income and creditworthy lower-income countries and gives guarantees.

Statement II is wrong: it works together with the International Development Association and the rest of the World Bank Group and with other partners, not single-handedly. Statement III is correct: it was set up in 1944 to help rebuild Europe after the Second World War. Answer (c).

Sources: IBRD (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) I only

Statement I is correct: RTGS settles each payment individually and instantly, while NEFT settles in half-hourly batches.

Statement II is wrong: under the RBI's framework, inward RTGS transactions are free, with no charge to be levied. Statement III is wrong: NEFT has run 24x7 since December 2019 and RTGS since 14 December 2020, so neither is restricted to certain days. Answer (a), I only.

Sources: RBI: RTGS FAQs (inward transactions free); RBI: RTGS 24x7 from 14 December 2020, NEFT 24x7 earlier

Answer: (b) Only three

UPI merchant payments are accepted in the UAE, France and Singapore among the listed countries (along with Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Mauritius).

Germany and Bangladesh did not accept UPI merchant payments at the time. Three, answer (b).

Sources: Unified Payments Interface (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) I, II and III

All three are correct. PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana (2024) aims to put rooftop solar on one crore homes (I).

Its capacity-building component, run through the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, trains people at the grassroots to install and maintain rooftop systems (II), aiming at more than three lakh skilled workers (III). Answer (d).

Sources: MNRE: Operational guidelines, capacity building under PM Surya Ghar (July 2024)

Answer: (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

UPSC's key gives (b). Gandhi made the remark during the Salt Satyagraha of 1930, when defying the salt law was itself an offence against the colonial state and he openly invited arrest for it.

Sources: Salt March (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) bronze

The Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-daro (about 2300 to 1750 BCE) is a small bronze statue made by the lost-wax method. It is now in the National Museum, New Delhi. Answer (c).

Sources: Dancing Girl (prehistoric sculpture) (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

UPSC's key gives (b). After the Chauri Chaura incident of February 1922, in which a police station was set on fire and 22 policemen were killed, Madan Mohan Malaviya returned to the courtroom, which he had long left, to defend the accused. In the end 19 of those condemned to death were hanged.

Sources: Madan Mohan Malaviya (Wikipedia); Chauri Chaura incident (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) The Poona Pact

After the Poona Pact of September 1932, Gandhi made the removal of untouchability a central part of his work: he founded the Harijan Sevak Sangh, started the weekly Harijan and toured the country for the cause. Answer (a).

Sources: Poona Pact (Wikipedia); Harijan Sevak Sangh (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) All the three

All three fruits came from the Americas and reached India with the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries: papaya, pineapple and guava. Answer (c).

Sources: Columbian exchange (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) Only four

Counting overseas territories, the United Kingdom, Denmark (with Greenland and the Faroe Islands), New Zealand (with its Pacific territories) and Australia (with its external territories) each span more than four time zones.

Brazil has exactly four, so it does not qualify. Four countries, answer (b).

Sources: List of time zones by country (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) I only

Statement I is correct: Anadyr in Russia and Nome in Alaska are close together but on opposite sides of the International Date Line, so they are on different calendar days.

Statement II is wrong: crossing the date line westward adds a day, so Anadyr is ahead. When it is Monday in Anadyr it is still Sunday in Nome. Answer (a), I only.

Sources: International Date Line (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) 'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

E. V. Ramasamy, known as Periyar, founded the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 in Tamil Nadu to fight caste discrimination and Brahminical dominance. Answer (a).

Sources: Self-Respect Movement (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) All the three

All three pairs are correct. Botswana is one of the world's largest producers of diamonds, Chile holds some of the largest lithium reserves, and Indonesia is the world's largest producer of nickel. Answer (c).

Sources: Mining industry of Botswana (Wikipedia); Nickel mining in Indonesia (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) None

None is correct. Mallorca is a Spanish island in the Balearics, Normandy is a region of France, and Sardinia is an Italian island. The countries have been swapped around. Answer (d).

Sources: Mallorca (Wikipedia); Normandy (Wikipedia); Sardinia (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Both are correct, and II explains I. Rare earth elements such as europium and terbium are phosphors: they glow in precise colours when energised, which is why they are used in display screens and monitors. Answer (a).

Sources: Rare-earth element (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) I and II only

The question asks which statements are NOT correct.

Statement I is not correct: the National Rail Plan aims at a 'future ready' railway system by 2030, not 2028. Statement II is not correct: Kavach was developed indigenously by the Research Designs and Standards Organisation with Indian firms, not with Germany.

Statement III is correct: Kavach uses RFID tags fitted on the track. So I and II are not correct, answer (a).

Sources: Kavach (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) Only two

UPSC's key gives (b), two of the three. Axiom-4 (2025) flew a crew, including India's Shubhanshu Shukla, to the International Space Station to run microgravity experiments, and Gaganyaan, India's human spaceflight programme, is planned to carry microgravity experiments too.

SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) was mainly a demonstration of docking two satellites in orbit.

Sources: Axiom Mission 4 (Wikipedia); SpaDeX (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) Only two

The Dornier 228 is used by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard for maritime patrol, so pair I is correct. The C-17 Globemaster III is a heavy military transport aircraft, so pair III is correct.

The IL-76 is a four-engine military transport aircraft, not a supersonic combat aircraft, so pair II is wrong. Two pairs, answer (b).

Sources: Dornier 228 (Wikipedia); Ilyushin Il-76 (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) silver iodide and potassium iodide

Cloud seeding sprays substances that give water droplets or ice crystals something to form on. The common agents are silver iodide and potassium iodide (with salt and dry ice in some methods). Answer (a).

Sources: Cloud seeding (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) I only

Statement I is correct: the President's pardoning power under Article 72 is open to limited judicial review, for example if a decision is arbitrary, mala fide or made without considering the relevant material, as the Supreme Court held in Epuru Sudhakar (2006).

Statement II is wrong: the President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Answer (a), I only.

Sources: Pardon (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) I and III only

Statement I is correct: under Article 94, when the Lok Sabha is dissolved the Speaker stays in office until just before the first meeting of the new House.

Statement II is wrong: the Constitution does not require a Speaker to resign from his or her party. Statement III is correct: Article 94(c) allows removal by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members, after at least 14 days' notice. Answer (c), I and III only.

Sources: Speaker of the Lok Sabha (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Statement I is wrong: under the Tenth Schedule, questions of disqualification for defection are decided by the Speaker (or Chairman), not by the President.

Statement II is wrong: the Tenth Schedule, added in 1985, uses and defines the term 'political party'. Answer (d), neither.

Sources: Anti-defection law (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Statement I is wrong: under section 15 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, State Governments make the rules for concessions for minor minerals.

Statement II is correct: the Central Government has the power to declare which minerals are minor minerals under section 3(e) of the same Act. Answer (d).

Sources: MMDR Act 1957 (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) The European Union

The European Union adopted the Nature Restoration Law in 2024. It requires member states to restore at least 20 per cent of the EU's damaged land and sea areas by 2030. Answer (a).

Sources: Nature Restoration Law (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) I, II and III

The question asks which statements are NOT correct, and all three are not correct.

Panchayats at the intermediate level need not exist in States with a population below 20 lakh (Article 243B). The minimum age for a panchayat member is 21, not 30 (Article 243F). The State Finance Commission is set up by the Governor, not the Chief Minister (Article 243I). Answer (d).

Sources: NCERT Class 12, Social Change and Development in India, p.47

Answer: (d) I only

Statement I is correct: BIMSTEC has seven members. Statement II is wrong: it was created by the Bangkok Declaration of 1997, not a Dhaka Declaration of 1999.

Statement III is wrong: the founders were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand; Myanmar joined later in 1997 and Nepal and Bhutan in 2004. UPSC's key also treats Statement IV as wrong. Answer (d), I only.

Sources: BIMSTEC (Wikipedia)

Answer: (c) II, III and IV

The jury for the Gandhi Peace Prize is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes the Chief Justice of India and the Leader of the single largest Opposition party in the Lok Sabha, along with eminent persons. The President is not on the jury. Answer (c), II, III and IV.

Sources: Gandhi Peace Prize (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) I and II only

GAGAN is India's satellite-based augmentation system built by ISRO and the Airports Authority of India. It improves the accuracy and integrity of GPS signals (I) and supports safer, more uniform air traffic management (II).

Statement III is wrong: its signals also help shipping, railways, road transport and surveying, not only aviation. Answer (d), I and II only.

Sources: GAGAN (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) I only

Statement I is correct: France and India co-chaired the AI Action Summit in Paris in February 2025, which followed the Bletchley Park (2023) and Seoul (2024) summits.

Statement II is wrong: the United States and the United Kingdom did not sign the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI. Answer (a), I only.

Sources: AI Action Summit (Wikipedia)

Answer: (d) All the four

All four pairs are correct as declared by the UN General Assembly: 2025 International Year of Peace and Trust, 2026 International Year of the Woman Farmer, 2027 International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism, and 2029 International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence. Answer (d).

Sources: UN: International Years

Answer: (a) I and II

Statement I is correct: Russia chaired BRICS in 2024 and hosted the 16th summit in Kazan. Statement II is correct: Indonesia became a full member in January 2025.

Statement III is wrong: the theme was 'Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security', not multiculturalism. Answer (a), I and II.

Sources: 16th BRICS summit (Wikipedia); BRICS (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) III only

Statement I is wrong: the Lokpal's jurisdiction covers public servants of India both inside and outside the country. Statement II is wrong: the Chairperson can be a former Chief Justice of India, a former Supreme Court judge or an eminent person, not only a Chief Justice.

Statement III is correct: a Chairperson or Member must be at least 45 years old. Statement IV is wrong: the Lokpal can inquire into allegations against a Prime Minister, with safeguards. Answer (a), III only.

Sources: Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 (Wikipedia)

Answer: (a) I only

Statement I is correct: the first Kho Kho World Cup was held in New Delhi in January 2025, and India won both titles, beating Nepal in both finals.

Statements II and III swap the scores: the men won 54-36 and the women won 78-40. Answer (a), I only.

Sources: 2025 Kho Kho World Cup (Wikipedia)

Answer: (b) II only

Statement I is wrong: at the 45th Chess Olympiad (Budapest, 2024) India won team gold. Gukesh became the youngest world champion by beating Ding Liren of China in the World Championship match in December 2024, not Ian Nepomniachtchi in an Olympiad final.

Statement II is correct: Abhimanyu Mishra of the United States became the youngest grandmaster ever in 2021, at 12 years and 4 months. Answer (b), II only.

Sources: Abhimanyu Mishra (Wikipedia); 45th Chess Olympiad (Wikipedia)